I just have a question in regards to oxygen treatment. With the recent memorandum it states that in all cases high flow oxygen delivery should be avoided unless via ETT/SGA. Does this mean we are no longer able to use a BVM for a patient who is severely short of breath when a high concentration/low flow masks with a submicron filter is no longer able to maintain an appropriate 02 saturation level?
As per the new amendments that came out today are we with-holding CPAP (in all cases) including those who screen negative for COVID-19 assuming that they could still be a positive case?
On a recent webinar Dr. Exley cited two examples of orders a BHP might give that should not be followed because they are out of the scope of practice. One was an ACP getting an order for Atropine for a cholinergic overdose.
My question is just to clarify this point...
Am I to conclude that if I have a patient exposed to Organophosphates or Carbamate or Herbicides who is experiencing severe S&S of a cholinergic OD (Hypotension, Bradycardia, SLUDGE), that I CANNOT contact a BHP and ask for Atropine or carry out the order if a BHP orders Atropine?
My confusion stems from a belief that I have always been able to perform this procedure and because the Medical Directive for Adult and Paediatric Nerve Agent Exposure calls for the administration of Atropine at given doses based on whether the patient's condition is moderate or severe:
Adult 2 - 6 mg
Ped. 0.5 - 1 mg/kg
I appreciate the time taken in providing me with an answer, and look forward to hearing from you.
As per NWRPCP, if there is ST-elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) we are automatically out of our Nitroglycerine protocol despite determining if has right ventricular involvement. This has lead me to believe that we shouldn't perform a 15-lead to determine symptom relief administration. If we have a normal ECG but notice depression in V3 & V4 (anterior leads), and we perform a 15 lead to check for reciprocal changes that might indicate a posterior STEMI? Are we indicated to administer nitroglycerin for a posterior STEMI that doesn't have V4R involvement? My understanding is that V4R determines if the right ventricle is involved so if V4R is normal, wouldn't we just have a normal posterior MI?
Just have a question about ASA in regards to administering the drug for new onset cardiac ischemic rhythms. An example would be a patient in 2nd degree type 2 heart block with no other cardiac ischemia signs/symptoms but has no history of a heart block before medics completed an assessment on the patient. With the possibility of the heart block being caused by ischemia can we give ASA ? Other cardiac rhythms that could be treated with ASA because of possible ischemia are BI/ Trigeminy PVCs/ runs of vtach/ 3RD degree block with no pervious history until medic assessment on scene.
This question is regarding the indication for the new analgesia medical direction. The new indication is just "pain" with a contraindication of suspected cardiac ischemia. I am aware of plenty of situations where this protocol would be appropriate. Example a fracture extremity or hip, renal colic, acute muscle strain, burns or etc. My main concern is what would be considered an appropriate type of pain to receive our analgesic medication or can we now consider all types of pain appropriate as long as it is not suspected cardiac ischemia?
The protocol/companion document do not mention other types of visceral pain. Can someone with acute/chronic abdominal pain be treated with our analgesic medication? Example appendicitis or pancreatitis.
Does the origin of the pain need to be traumatic in nature? Example a pt has an acute infection in their limb or a possible DVT causing extreme pain.
What about a pt with a possible fractured rib or traumatic neck/back injury?
